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Chemistry 0620/12 May/June 2022: question paper and mark scheme

Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620), Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core), May/June 2022. Read both free below, or download them. Done the paper? Get it marked by AI against this mark scheme.

0620_s22_qp_120620_s22_ms_120620/12/M/J/22

Paper
Paper 1 Multiple Choice (Core)
Total marks
40
Time
45 minutes
Code on the paper
0620/12/M/J/22
0620_s22_ms_12.pdf

0620/12 answers, question by question

Each question and its answer from the key, as text. Diagrams and graphs are in the question paper above.

Question 11 mark

Question

Substances change state when their temperature is changed. Which changes of state take place when the temperature of a substance is lowered? 1 boiling 2 condensation 3 freezing 4 melting A 1 and 4 B 2, 3 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

Answer

C

Question 21 mark

Question

A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4

Answer

A

Question 31 mark

Question

Which method is used to separate a mixture of the following liquids? liquid boiling point / °C methanol 64.5 ethanol 78.5 propan-1-ol 97.2 butan-1-ol 117.0 A crystallisation B evaporation C filtration D fractional distillation

Answer

D

Question 41 mark

Question

X and Y are two different elements. X and Y have the same number of nucleons. Which statement about X and Y is correct? A They have the same physical properties. B Their atoms have the same number of electrons. C They are in different groups of the Periodic Table. D They have different relative masses.

Answer

C

Question 51 mark

Question

Which row identifies an alloy, a pure metal and a non-metal? alloy pure metal non-metal A brass carbon copper B brass copper carbon C copper brass carbon D copper carbon brass

Answer

B

Question 61 mark

Question

Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? A Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. B Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. C Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. D Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons.

Answer

C

Question 71 mark

Question

Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the arrangement of outer shell electrons in a molecule of hydrogen chloride? A B C D H Cl H Cl H Cl H Cl

Answer

A

Question 81 mark

Question

Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant? A All of the atoms in graphite are carbon. B Each carbon atom forms three bonds. C Graphite has a macromolecular structure. D The layers in graphite can slide over each other.

Answer

D

Question 91 mark

Question

A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? A copper, Cu B gadolinium, Gd C sulfur, S D tellurium, Te

Answer

A

Question 101 mark

Question

The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated aqueous sodium chloride using carbon electrodes. + – + – electrode 1 electrode 2 electrode 3 electrode 4 concentrated concentrated aqueous hydrochloric acid sodium chloride At which electrodes is hydrogen produced? A electrode 1 only B electrodes 1 and 3 C electrode 2 only D electrodes 2 and 4

Answer

D

Question 111 mark

Question

Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide? A combustion B endothermic C oxidation D reduction

Answer

B

Question 121 mark

Question

Which row identifies a chemical change and a physical change? chemical change physical change A boiling ethanol burning ethanol B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water

Answer

B

Question 131 mark

Question

Which statement about rate of reaction is correct? A Catalysts increase the time for the reaction to be completed. B Decreasing particle size increases the rate of reaction. C Decreasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. D Rate of reaction decreases as the concentration increases.

Answer

B

Question 141 mark

Question

Some common household substances are tested with litmus and methyl orange. household colour of colour of substance litmus methyl orange bicarbonate of soda blue yellow lemonade red red milk red red milk of magnesia blue yellow washing powder blue yellow vinegar red red Which statement is correct? A Lemonade, milk and bicarbonate of soda are all acidic. B Milk of magnesia can neutralise washing powder. C Milk of magnesia, washing powder and vinegar are all bases. D Vinegar can neutralise bicarbonate of soda.

Answer

D

Question 151 mark

Question

Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction? A The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder. B The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter. C The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder. D The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter.

Answer

B

Question 161 mark

Question

In which equation is carbon both oxidised and reduced? A C + O2 → CO2 B CO2 + C → 2CO C 3CO + Fe2O3 → 3CO2 + 2Fe D 2CO + O2 → 2CO2

Answer

B

Question 171 mark

Question

Aqueous solutions containing copper(II) ions can be identified using flame tests and by adding aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which row describes what is observed in these tests? flame test aqueous sodium hydroxide A blue-green flame light blue precipitate B blue-green flame green precipitate C lilac flame light blue precipitate D lilac flame green precipitate

Answer

A

Question 181 mark

Question

The oxides of two elements, X and Y, are separately dissolved in water and the pH of each solution tested. oxide tested pH of solution X 1 Y 13 Which information about X and Y is correct? oxide is oxide is metal non-metal acidic basic A X Y X Y B X Y Y X C Y X X Y D Y X Y X

Answer

B

Question 191 mark

Question

An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? A crystallisation → evaporation → filtration B evaporation → crystallisation → filtration C filtration → crystallisation → evaporation D filtration → evaporation → crystallisation

Answer

D

Question 201 mark

Question

Some statements about gas G are listed. G is monoatomic. G is found in clean, dry air. G is used in lamps. Which element is G? A argon B helium C nitrogen D oxygen

Answer

A

Question 211 mark

Question

Part of the Periodic Table is shown. Which element is a metal? A B C D

Answer

C

Question 221 mark

Question

The elements sodium to argon form Period 3 of the Periodic Table. Which row describes the trend across Period 3 from left to right? number of metallic group outer-shell electrons character number A decreases decreases decreases B decreases increases decreases C increases decreases increases D increases increases increases

Answer

C

Question 231 mark

Question

Some properties of element E are listed. It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E? A aluminium B bromine C iron D lithium

Answer

C

Question 241 mark

Question

Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Chlorine, bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Which row identifies the least dense of these elements in each group? Group I Group VII A lithium chlorine B lithium iodine C potassium chlorine D potassium iodine

Answer

A

Question 251 mark

Question

The reactions of metals P, Q, R and S are shown. reaction reaction with reduction of the metal with water hydrochloric acid metal oxide with carbon P no reaction no reaction reduced Q slow vigorous no reaction R vigorous vigorous no reaction S very slow vigorous reduced What is the order of reactivity of the metals? least most reactive reactive A P S Q R B P Q S R C R S Q P D R Q S P

Answer

A

Question 261 mark

Question

Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace? A CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 B C + O2 → CO2 C CO2 + C → 2CO D Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

Answer

B

Question 271 mark

Question

Which diagram represents the arrangement of atoms in an alloy? A B C D

Answer

D

Question 281 mark

Question

Which uses of the metals shown are correct? aluminium stainless steel A aircraft bodies car bodies B car bodies aircraft bodies C chemical plant food containers D food containers cutlery

Answer

D

Question 291 mark

Question

Which row identifies a substance present in clean air and a substance that is a pollutant in air? present in clean air pollutant in air A oxides of nitrogen nitrogen B carbon dioxide sulfur dioxide C carbon monoxide lead compounds D nitrogen argon

Answer

B

Question 301 mark

Question

Which property of sulfur dioxide explains why it is used as a food preservative? A acidic oxide B bleach C kills bacteria D pungent smell

Answer

C

Question 311 mark

Question

Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements? A Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4 B Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4 C KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4 D KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4

Answer

D

Question 321 mark

Question

Compound J is an unsaturated carboxylic acid. Which bonds are present in a molecule of J? C=C C=O O–H A key B = yes C = no D

Answer

A

Question 331 mark

Question

Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes? A fuel oil B gasoline C naphtha D kerosene / paraffin

Answer

D

Question 341 mark

Question

What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? A calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide B calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide C calcium oxide and carbon dioxide D calcium oxide and carbon monoxide

Answer

C

Question 351 mark

Question

Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol. What is X? A ethanoic acid B glucose C hydrogen D steam

Answer

D

Question 361 mark

Question

What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? A CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O B 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O C CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O D C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

Answer

C

Question 371 mark

Question

Alkenes can be produced by cracking large hydrocarbon molecules to form smaller hydrocarbon molecules. Which equations represent possible reactions when tetradecane, C14H30, is cracked? 1 C14H30 → C2H6 + C3H6 + C4H8 + C5H10 2 C14H30 → H2 + C2H4 + C3H6 + C4H8 + C5H10 3 C14H30 → C2H6 + 4C3H6 4 C14H30 → C2H6 + C3H8 + C9H18 A 1 only B 1 and 4 C 1, 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

Answer

C

Question 381 mark

Question

The products formed by burning substance J are passed through the apparatus shown. products of burning J ice white precipitate forms in limewater water collects What is substance J? A carbon monoxide B ethanol C hydrogen D sulfur

Answer

B

Question 391 mark

Question

Which statements about ethanoic acid are correct? 1 Aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with magnesium to form magnesium ethanoate. 2 Carbon dioxide is formed when aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. 3 Hydrogen is formed when aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide. 4 Ethanoic acid turns red litmus paper blue. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

Answer

A

Question 401 mark

Question

Which statement about polymerisation is correct? A Large monomer molecules join to form small polymer molecules. B Large polymer molecules join to form small monomer molecules. C Small monomer molecules join to form large polymer molecules. D Small polymer molecules join to form large monomer molecules. The Periodic Table of Elements Group I II III IV V VI VII VIII 1 2 H He hydrogen helium Key 1 4 3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10 Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon 7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon 23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton 39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon 85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131 16 55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 lanthanoids Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon 133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – – 87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116 actinoids Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium – – – – – – – – – – – – – 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium 139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium – 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – – The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

Answer

C

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Chemistry 0620/12 for May/June 2022 is out of 40 marks, with 45 minutes to answer it.

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