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Physics 0625/23 May/June 2020: question paper and mark scheme

Cambridge IGCSE Physics (0625), Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended), May/June 2020. Read both free below, or download them. Done the paper? Get it marked by AI against this mark scheme.

0625_s20_qp_230625_s20_ms_230625/23/M/J/20

Paper
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended)
Total marks
40
Time
45 minutes
Code on the paper
0625/23/M/J/20
0625_s20_ms_23.pdf

0625/23 answers, question by question

Each question and its answer from the key, as text. Diagrams and graphs are in the question paper above.

Question 11 mark

Question

Diagram 1 shows a solid, rectangular-sided block. top front side diagram 1 Diagram 2 shows the same block from the front and from the side. 7 6 5 4 front side 3 2 cm 1 cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 diagram 2 Metre rules have been shown close to the edges of the block. What is the volume of the block? A 120 cm3 B 168 cm3 C 264 cm3 D 1155 cm3

Answer

B

Question 21 mark

Question

A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope. The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t. t = 0s v = 0 cm / s t = 0.2 s v = 2.8 cm / s t = 0.4 s ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s v = 7.0 cm / s Which statement describes the motion of the ball? A The acceleration is not constant. B The acceleration is negative. C The speed is decreasing. D The velocity is constant.

Answer

A

Question 31 mark

Question

Which statement about acceleration is correct? A It is related to the changing speed of an object. B It is the distance an object travels in one second. C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second. D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

Answer

A

Question 41 mark

Question

Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car? A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest. B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest. C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest. D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

Answer

C

Question 51 mark

Question

Which row gives the correct weight for the mass shown? The value of g is 10 N / kg. mass / kg weight / N A 2 20 B 10 1 C 10 10 D 20 2

Answer

A

Question 61 mark

Question

A rectangular gymnasium is 50 m long, 25 m wide and 8.0 m high. The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3. What is the best estimate of the mass of air in the gymnasium? A 0.00012 kg B 100 kg C 8300 kg D 12 000 kg

Answer

D

Question 71 mark

Question

Which moving object has a resultant force acting on it? A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed C a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity D a train going up a straight slope at constant speed

Answer

B

Question 81 mark

Question

Which quantity is not a vector? A acceleration B temperature C velocity D weight

Answer

B

Question 91 mark

Question

A ball falls vertically to the floor and rebounds vertically upwards. Just before it hits the floor, its speed is 4.0 m / s. As it rebounds, its speed is 3.0 m / s. The mass of the ball is 0.50 kg. What is the change in momentum of the ball? A 0.50 kg m / s downwards B 0.50 kg m / s upwards C 3.5 kg m / s downwards D 3.5 kg m / s upwards

Answer

D

Question 101 mark

Question

A mass bounces up and down on a steel spring. The diagram shows the mass and the spring at different points during the motion. highest mass mass point moving moving down up lowest point At which point does the mass have the least gravitational potential energy and at which point is the most elastic energy stored in the spring? least amount of most elastic energy gravitational stored in spring potential energy A mass moving down mass moving up B mass moving down lowest point C lowest point mass moving up D lowest point lowest point

Answer

D

Question 111 mark

Question

The velocity v of an object increases as it falls towards the ground. Which quantity is directly proportional to v2? A the speed of the object B the gravitational potential energy of the object C the kinetic energy of the object D the momentum of the object

Answer

C

Question 121 mark

Question

The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown. 40 cm 20 cm Q R bench 80 cm P On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench? A P B Q C R D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

Answer

A

Question 131 mark

Question

A pipe full of water connects a water supply on a hill to a tap lower down the hill. The length of the pipe is 500 m. The height of the supply above the tap is 100 m. The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3. The effect of atmospheric pressure is negligible. What is the water pressure at the tap? A 100 000 Pa B 500 000 Pa C 1 000 000 Pa D 5 000 000 Pa

Answer

C

Question 141 mark

Question

When a molecule rebounds from a wall, a force is exerted on the wall. What causes this force? A the kinetic energy gained by the molecule B the kinetic energy lost by the molecule C the change of momentum of the molecule D the change of speed of the molecule

Answer

C

Question 151 mark

Question

The relationship between pressure p and volume V of a gas is given as pV = constant. Under which conditions for the mass of a gas and for its temperature does the equation hold? mass temperature A changing changing B changing constant C constant changing D constant constant

Answer

D

Question 161 mark

Question

The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer. X Y Which row gives the correct labels for the thermometer? X Y A water narrow tube of uniform diameter B alcohol narrow tube of uniform diameter C water this end immersed in substance to be measured D alcohol this end immersed in substance to be measured

Answer

B

Question 171 mark

Question

The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale. The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block. Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature? A B C D

Answer

A

Question 181 mark

Question

Why are metals better conductors of thermal energy than non-metals? A They contain free electrons. B Their molecules are further apart. C Their molecules vibrate at a higher frequency. D They have smoother surfaces.

Answer

A

Question 191 mark

Question

The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep a liquid warm. airtight lid outer cover vacuum silvered walls Which methods of heat loss are reduced by the vacuum between the silvered walls? A conduction only B conduction and convection only C convection and radiation only D conduction, convection and radiation

Answer

B

Question 201 mark

Question

An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete waves of an earthquake wave in 20 s. The speed of the earthquake wave is 6.0 km / s. What is the wavelength of the earthquake wave? A 1.3 × 10–4 m B 2.1 × 10–4 m C 4.8 × 103 m D 7.5 × 103 m

Answer

D

Question 211 mark

Question

The diagram shows a wave. 8 cm 3 cm 6 cm 4 cm What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave? amplitude / cm wavelength / cm A 3 4 B 3 8 C 6 4 D 6 8

Answer

B

Question 221 mark

Question

Which statement is correct? A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the refractive index of glass. B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the glass surface. C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 . refractive index of glass D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the angle of incidence at that surface.

Answer

C

Question 231 mark

Question

Which statement about converging lenses is correct? A A real image of an object projected onto a screen by a converging lens is always inverted. B The image formed by a converging lens is always upright. C The image formed by a converging lens when used as a magnifying glass is a real image. D Parallel rays entering a converging lens are focused at a distance greater than the focal length from the lens.

Answer

A

Question 241 mark

Question

An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings. Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect? A infrared B radio C ultraviolet D visible light

Answer

A

Question 251 mark

Question

Two people are standing outdoors on either side of a high wall. person 1 person 2 Person 1 can hear person 2 talking although he cannot see her. Which statement explains this? A The sound waves have diffracted around the wall. B The sound waves have passed unaffected through the wall. C The sound waves have reflected around the wall. D The sound waves have refracted around the wall.

Answer

A

Question 261 mark

Question

Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet. One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can support is recorded. nail N S bar magnet paper clips The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is recorded. Each nail is tested individually. Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet? number of paper clips attached to the nail bar magnet present bar magnet removed A 2 0 B 2 1 C 4 3 D 5 2

Answer

C

Question 271 mark

Question

The diagrams show a magnetised steel rod inside a solenoid connected to a potentiometer. In diagram 1, the potentiometer is connected to a d.c. power supply. In diagram 2, the potentiometer is connected to an a.c. power supply. magnetised magnetised steel steel P Q R S d.c. a.c. diagram 1 diagram 2 Which action would demagnetise the piece of steel? A In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from P to Q. B In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from Q to P. C In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from R to S. D In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from S to R.

Answer

D

Question 281 mark

Question

The diagram shows a positively charged conducting sphere and a wire connected to earth. positively charged sphere + + + wire + + + earth insulating support What happens when the wire is touched onto the sphere? A Electrons flow from earth to the sphere. B Electrons flow from the sphere to earth. C Positive charges flow from earth to the sphere. D Positive charges flow from the sphere to earth.

Answer

A

Question 291 mark

Question

A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors. A V The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A. What is the resistance of each resistor? A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

Answer

C

Question 301 mark

Question

There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor of resistance 8.0 Ω. How much power is dissipated in the resistor? A 0.25 W B 4.0 W C 16 W D 32 W

Answer

D

Question 311 mark

Question

The lamps, the diodes and the batteries in the circuits are identical. In which circuit does the ammeter give the greatest reading? A B C D A A A A

Answer

A

Question 321 mark

Question

Two resistors are connected in series with a power supply. Which statement about the circuit is correct? A The current from the supply is greater than the current in each resistor. B The current from the supply is equal to the current in each resistor. C The current from the supply is less than the current in each resistor. D The current from the supply is the sum of the currents in each resistor.

Answer

B

Question 331 mark

Question

Which two logic gates each have a high output when both of their inputs are high? A AND and OR B AND and NOR C NAND and NOR D NAND and OR

Answer

A

Question 341 mark

Question

The diagram shows a series of logic gates and part of its corresponding truth table. P R Q T S P Q R S T 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 What are the missing values in row 2 of the truth table? A 010 B 011 C 100 D 111

Answer

B

Question 351 mark

Question

The graphs show how the currents in three circuits vary with time. circuit 1 circuit 2 1.5 1.5 current / A 1.0 current / A 1.0 0.5 0.5 0.0 0.0 –0.5 –0.5 –1.0 –1.0 –1.5 –1.5 time time circuit 3 1.5 current / A 1.0 0.5 0.0 –0.5 –1.0 –1.5 time In which circuits is there a direct current? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

Answer

B

Question 361 mark

Question

The coil of a simple a.c. generator rotates steadily in a uniform magnetic field. The diagram shows the position of the coil at time t = 0. coil N S Which graph shows the output voltage for one revolution of the coil? A B V V 0 0 0 t 0 t C D V V 0 0 0 t 0 t

Answer

A

Question 371 mark

Question

What occurs during nuclear fusion? A Two light atomic nuclei join together and emit energy. B Two light atomic nuclei join together and absorb energy. C A heavy atomic nucleus splits and emits energy. D A heavy atomic nucleus splits and absorbs energy.

Answer

A

Question 381 mark

Question

A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days. A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms. How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days? A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

Answer

D

Question 391 mark

Question

A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count rate falls to a very low reading. paper detector counter source From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting? A α-particles B β-particles C γ-rays D X-rays 40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay. Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field? A α-particles and β-particles only B β-particles and γ-rays only C γ-rays and α-particles only D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Answer

A

Question 401 mark

Question

In the question paper above.

Answer

A

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Where can I find the 0625/23 May/June 2020 mark scheme?

On this page, free: the mark scheme for IGCSE Physics 0625/23, May/June 2020 (0625_s20_ms_23), and the question paper (0625_s20_qp_23), to read or download, with each question's marking points written out underneath.

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Physics 0625/23 for May/June 2020 is out of 40 marks, with 45 minutes to answer it.

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