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Physics 0625/22 May/June 2023: question paper and mark scheme

Cambridge IGCSE Physics (0625), Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended), May/June 2023. Read both free below, or download them. Done the paper? Get it marked by AI against this mark scheme.

0625_s23_qp_220625_s23_ms_220625/22/M/J/23

Paper
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended)
Total marks
40
Time
45 minutes
Code on the paper
0625/22/M/J/23
0625_s23_ms_22.pdf

0625/22 answers, question by question

Each question and its answer from the key, as text. Diagrams and graphs are in the question paper above.

Question 11 mark

Question

Forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles, as shown. X Y 3N O 4N Z What is the resultant force? A 1 N along XZ B 5 N along XZ C 5 N along OY D 7 N along OY

Answer

C

Question 21 mark

Question

A light ball is held at rest at the top of a tall cliff. It is released and falls through the air, eventually reaching its terminal velocity. Which row describes the behaviour of the ball as it descends? the initial the final acceleration acceleration of the ball of the ball A 0 0 B 0 g C g 0 D g g

Answer

C

Question 31 mark

Question

The graph represents the motion of a car. 10 speed m/s 8 6 4 2 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 time / s How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s? A 2m B 10 m C 25 m D 50 m

Answer

C

Question 41 mark

Question

Which statement about mass or weight is not correct? A Masses can be compared using a balance. B Mass is a force. C Weights can be compared using a balance. D Weight is a force.

Answer

B

Question 51 mark

Question

A sphere P, made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Earth. Another sphere Q, also made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Mars. The gravitational field strength on Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on Mars. Which statement is correct? A The mass of sphere P is the same as the mass of sphere Q. B The mass of sphere P is less than the mass of sphere Q. C On Mars, the weight of sphere P is the same as the weight of sphere Q. D On Earth, the weight of sphere Q is less than 10 N.

Answer

B

Question 61 mark

Question

Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material? A mass and area B mass and volume C weight and area D weight and volume

Answer

B

Question 71 mark

Question

A truck is towing a car along a straight horizontal road at a constant speed. truck car rope The rope breaks. Which row gives the direction of the initial acceleration of the truck after the rope breaks and the reason for the acceleration? direction of acceleration reason of the truck A left the driving force is greater than the resistive forces on the truck B left the driving force is smaller than the resistive forces on the truck C right the driving force is greater than the resistive forces on the truck D right the driving force is smaller than the resistive forces on the truck

Answer

C

Question 81 mark

Question

A uniform beam is pivoted at the centre and two identical masses, X and Y, are placed so that the beam balances. A smaller mass is then added at the position shown. position of small mass X Y pivot How can the masses be positioned so the beam balances again? A Move X away from the pivot. B Move X towards the pivot. C Move Y towards the pivot. D Move the small mass away from the pivot.

Answer

B

Question 91 mark

Question

A resultant force of 2.0 N acts on an object of mass 3.0 kg for 6.0 s. What is the change in velocity of the object? A 0.25 m / s B 1.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 36 m / s

Answer

C

Question 101 mark

Question

The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred between stores. internal heating energy chemical ? energy kinetic sound energy What describes how the chemical energy is transferred? A electrical work done B mechanical work done C electromagnetic waves D sound waves

Answer

A

Question 111 mark

Question

A wind turbine is 30% efficient and has an output of 2.5 MW of electrical power. What is the power input to the turbine? A 0.75 MW B 8.3 MW C 75 MW D 83 MW

Answer

B

Question 121 mark

Question

Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student running up a flight of steps? A force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only B force exerted and the time taken only C work done and the vertical height of the steps only D work done and the time taken only

Answer

D

Question 131 mark

Question

The density of sea water is 1030 kg / m3. The gravitational field strength on the Earth is 9.8 N / kg. Atmospheric pressure is 101 000 Pa. At which depth in sea water is the total pressure due to the atmosphere and the water equal to 513 000 Pa? A 40.8 m B 50.8 m C 400 m D 498 m

Answer

A

Question 141 mark

Question

Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model. Which student is correct? A This is the lowest possible temperature. B Particles in a solid start vibrating. C Particles do not have any weight. D Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.

Answer

A

Question 151 mark

Question

Four students are asked to state and explain the relative magnitudes of the thermal expansion of solids and gases. Which student is correct? A Gases expand more than solids because the molecules in a gas are in random motion. B Gases expand more than solids because the attractive forces between molecules are much weaker in gases. C Solids expand more than gases because the molecules are closer together in solids. D Solids expand more than gases because the molecules in a solid are in a regular pattern.

Answer

B

Question 161 mark

Question

Four cups A, B, C and D contain hot coffee. Which cup keeps the coffee warm the longest? the outside the top of the cup surface of the cup A black covered with a lid B black no lid C white covered with a lid D white no lid

Answer

C

Question 171 mark

Question

The diagram shows a wave. 8 cm 3 cm 6 cm 4 cm What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave? amplitude / cm wavelength / cm A 3 4 B 3 8 C 6 4 D 6 8

Answer

B

Question 181 mark

Question

Optical fibres are used to transmit digital signals using infrared radiation. The average refractive index of the fibres is 1.50. Which row describes a digital signal and gives the speed of infrared radiation in the fibres? speed of infrared radiation in the fibres digital signal m/s A a signal that consists 2.0 × 108 of only two values B a signal that consists 4.5 × 108 of only two values C a signal that consists of 2.0 × 108 a continuous range of values D a signal that consists of 4.5 × 108 a continuous range of values

Answer

A

Question 191 mark

Question

Which statement describes monochromatic light? A light of a single frequency B light transmitted by a transparent prism C visible light D white light

Answer

A

Question 201 mark

Question

A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light. The beam of light is incident on a glass prism. Which diagram is correct? A B yellow blue blue yellow glass prism glass prism C D glass prism glass prism blue yellow yellow blue

Answer

D

Question 211 mark

Question

A radio station broadcasts a signal with a frequency of 89 MHz. What is the wavelength of this signal? A 3.7 µm B 3.4 m C 3.7 km D 3.4 Mm

Answer

B

Question 221 mark

Question

A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later. The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s. How far away from the boy is the building? A 150 m B 300 m C 360 m D 730 m

Answer

C

Question 231 mark

Question

The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines. Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly? A B C D N S N S N S N S

Answer

A

Question 241 mark

Question

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged. Why has the rod become positively charged? A It has gained electrons. B It has gained neutrons. C It has lost electrons. D It has lost neutrons.

Answer

C

Question 251 mark

Question

Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct? A In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor. B In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth. C In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time. D In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

Answer

D

Question 261 mark

Question

A piece of metal wire X with a uniform diameter has resistance R. X A second piece of wire Y is made of the same metal and has a uniform diameter. Y has double the cross-sectional area of X and half the length of X. Y What is the resistance of Y? R R A B C R D 4R 4 2

Answer

A

Question 271 mark

Question

An electric fire is connected to a 240 V supply and transfers energy at a rate of 1.0 kW. How much charge passes through the fire in 1.0 h? A 42 C B 250 C C 1.5 × 104 C D 2.4 × 105 C

Answer

C

Question 281 mark

Question

Two lamps are connected in parallel. S1 S2 S3 Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light? A S1 and S2 only B S1 and S3 only C S2 and S3 only D S1, S2 and S3

Answer

D

Question 291 mark

Question

The diagram shows a circuit that switches on a lamp when there is a change in the environment. Which change in the environment causes the lamp to be switched on? A a decrease in light intensity B a decrease in temperature C an increase in light intensity D an increase in temperature

Answer

D

Question 301 mark

Question

A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output voltage of 60 V a.c. The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A. What is the current in the secondary coil? A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A

Answer

C

Question 311 mark

Question

The diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field due to the current I in a straight wire. I Y Q P X Which row is correct? relative direction of field strength of field A X greater at P than Q B Y greater at P than Q C X greater at Q than P D Y greater at Q than P

Answer

D

Question 321 mark

Question

In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used? A electromagnet B loudspeaker C potential divider D relay

Answer

C

Question 331 mark

Question

Fission and fusion are two types of nuclear process. How does the total mass of the nuclides produced compare with the total mass of the original nuclide or nuclides in these nuclear processes? total mass of fission total mass of fusion products compared products compared to original nuclide to original nuclides A same same B more less C less more D less less

Answer

D

Question 341 mark

Question

The table shows the composition of three different nuclei. number of number of nucleus protons neutrons X 3 3 Y 3 4 Z 4 3 Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element? A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

Answer

B

Question 351 mark

Question

Which change occurs in the nucleus of a radioactive atom during β-emission? A A neutron transforms into a proton and an electron. B A neutron transforms into a proton only. C A proton transforms into a neutron and an electron. D A proton transforms into a neutron only.

Answer

A

Question 361 mark

Question

A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days. A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute. Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute. What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days? A 80 counts per minute B 90 counts per minute C 100 counts per minute D 110 counts per minute

Answer

B

Question 371 mark

Question

Which statement about the Solar System is correct? A All the planets are rocky. B Only the Earth has a moon. C Pluto is a dwarf planet. D There are many stars in the Solar System.

Answer

C

Question 381 mark

Question

Comets are bodies which orbit the Sun in the Solar System. What is the shape of the orbit and how is the Sun positioned within the orbit? shape of orbit position of the Sun A circular centre of orbit B circular not at centre of orbit C elliptical centre of orbit D elliptical not at centre of orbit

Answer

D

Question 391 mark

Question

Which nuclear reaction produces the release of energy to power a star? A nuclear fission of helium into hydrogen B nuclear fission of hydrogen into helium C nuclear fusion of helium into hydrogen D nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

Answer

D

Question 401 mark

Question

What is the definition of the Hubble constant? A the ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the Earth to its distance from the Earth B the value of the change in wavelength of the galaxy’s starlight due to redshift C the constant used to represent the rate of expansion of the Universe in all directions D the estimated constant equal to the age of the Universe

Answer

A

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Where can I find the 0625/22 May/June 2023 mark scheme?

On this page, free: the mark scheme for IGCSE Physics 0625/22, May/June 2023 (0625_s23_ms_22), and the question paper (0625_s23_qp_22), to read or download, with each question's marking points written out underneath.

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Physics 0625/22 for May/June 2023 is out of 40 marks, with 45 minutes to answer it.

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