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Biology 9700/13 May/June 2024: question paper and mark scheme

Cambridge AS & A Level Biology (9700), Paper 1 Multiple Choice, May/June 2024. Read both free below, or download them. Done the paper? Get it marked by AI against this mark scheme.

9700_s24_qp_139700_s24_ms_139700/13/M/J/24

Paper
Paper 1 Multiple Choice
Total marks
40
Time
1 hour 15 minutes
Code on the paper
9700/13/M/J/24
9700_s24_ms_13.pdf

9700/13 answers, question by question

Each question and its answer from the key, as text. Diagrams and graphs are in the question paper above.

Question 11 mark

Question

An eyepiece graticule can be calibrated using a stage micrometer. What is the correct reason why an eyepiece graticule is calibrated? A An eyepiece graticule can be used to make measurements. B An eyepiece graticule is magnified by the objective lens. C An eyepiece graticule magnifies the specimen. D An eyepiece graticule makes comparisons.

Answer

A

Question 21 mark

Question

The image is an electron micrograph of a typical eukaryotic cell. What can be concluded about the eukaryotic cell from the electron micrograph? A It is an animal cell because it does not have a cell wall. B It is an animal cell because it contains a permanent vacuole. C It is a plant cell because it contains many chloroplasts. D It is a plant cell because it contains many lysosomes.

Answer

A

Question 31 mark

Question

Which features are found in typical eukaryotes and also in typical bacteria? can respire A C B messenger RNA binds to 80S contain D ribosomes circular DNA

Answer

C

Question 41 mark

Question

Which type of cell will have the highest proportion of its volume taken up with cell structures bound by a single membrane? A ciliated epithelial cell B goblet cell C red blood cell D companion cell

Answer

B

Question 51 mark

Question

What causes the phosphate heads of phospholipids to become polar? A The phosphate heads are joined to water molecules by hydrogen bonds. B The phosphate heads are insoluble in water. C The phosphate heads become ionised in water. D The phosphate heads are joined to water molecules by covalent bonds.

Answer

C

Question 61 mark

Question

Which statements describe features of cellulose that adapt it for its function in plant cells? 1 Three cellulose molecules coil around each other to form a triple helix structure. 2 Many hydrogen bonds form between adjacent cellulose molecules. 3 Covalent bonds form between adjacent cellulose molecules. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

Answer

D

Question 71 mark

Question

Which structure shows α-glucose? A B CH2OH CH2OH C O C O H OH H H H H C C C C OH H OH H HO H HO OH C C C C H OH H OH C D H CH2OH C O C O H CH2OH HO OH H H C C C C H H OH H HO OH H H C C C C OH OH H OH

Answer

B

Question 81 mark

Question

What cannot occur as a result of a condensation reaction? A breaking of a glycosidic bond B formation of a disaccharide C joining together of two amino acids D production of a molecule of water

Answer

A

Question 91 mark

Question

Which fact about the quaternary structure of proteins is correct? A consists of four polypeptides B depends on the presence of metal ions C depends on the primary structure of the polypeptides D is made of α and β polypeptides

Answer

C

Question 101 mark

Question

The diagram shows different molecules in a solution. P Q R S Which statement could explain what happens when some of the molecules are mixed together? A Molecule P forms an enzyme–substrate complex with the non-competitive inhibitor molecule Q. B Molecule Q binds to molecule P, increasing the activation energy. C Molecules R and S bind to the active site of molecule P. D Molecules S and R are the products of the breakdown of molecule P.

Answer

C

Question 111 mark

Question

The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in three different conditions: ● without an inhibitor ● with a competitive inhibitor ● with a non-competitive inhibitor. The graph shows the results. 1 2 rate of reaction 3 substrate concentration Which row is correct? with a with a without an competitive non-competitive inhibitor inhibitor inhibitor A 1 2 3 B 1 3 2 C 3 1 2 D 3 2 1

Answer

A

Question 121 mark

Question

Which aspect of enzyme activity can be compared by the Michaelis–Menten constant? A activation energy of a reaction with or without an enzyme B affinity of different enzymes for their substrates C affinity of an enzyme at different substrate concentrations D maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) at different temperatures

Answer

B

Question 131 mark

Question

The number of substrate molecules one enzyme molecule can convert to product in a second is called the turnover number. This number is obtained when all conditions are optimum for the specific enzyme-catalysed reaction. turnover number enzyme / s–1 catalase 2 800 000 carbonic anhydrase 600 000 phosphatase 971 protease 100 How many times faster at converting substrate to product is catalase compared to phosphatase? A 29 B 288 C 2884 D 28 836

Answer

C

Question 141 mark

Question

A red indicator solution was mixed with agar, and the resulting solid was cut into small cuboid blocks. The blocks were placed in an acid which turns the indicator yellow, and all other variables were kept constant. The dimensions of the three blocks used are shown. block 1 3 mm × 3 mm × 3 mm block 2 8 mm × 8 mm × 8 mm block 3 11 mm × 11 mm × 11 mm Which row shows the correct surface area (SA) to volume (V) ratio for each block, and the time taken for the block to turn yellow? block 1 block 2 block 3 SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins A 0.5 : 1.0 4 1.33 : 1.0 11 1.83 : 1.0 13 B 0.5 : 1.0 13 1.33 : 1.0 11 1.83 : 1.0 4 C 2.0 : 1.0 4 0.75 : 1.0 11 0.55 : 1.0 13 D 2.0 : 1.0 13 0.75 : 1.0 11 0.55 : 1.0 4

Answer

C

Question 151 mark

Question

The statements describe some events in the process of exocytosis of glycoprotein molecules. 1 Membrane of the Golgi body folds around glycoprotein molecules. 2 Vesicle binds to and fuses with the cell surface membrane. 3 Vesicle attached to microtubules moves through the cytoplasm. 4 Secretory vesicle forms. What is the correct order of events for exocytosis? A 1→4→2→3 B 1→4→3→2 C 2→3→1→4 D 4→1→3→2

Answer

B

Question 161 mark

Question

Four cylinders that were identical in size, A, B, C and D, were cut from potatoes that had been stored for different lengths of time. The cylinders were weighed, immersed in 10% salt solution for 45 minutes and then reweighed. The percentage change in mass was then calculated. Which cylinder had a water potential similar to the 10% salt solution? percentage change in mass A –7.2 B –2.5 C –0.9 D +3.4

Answer

C

Question 171 mark

Question

The contents of a daughter cell are compared to the parent cell after one cell cycle. Which row is correct? number of volume of length of chromosomes cytoplasm telomeres A increases remains the same decreases B increases decreases remains the same C remains the same remains the same remains the same D remains the same decreases decreases

Answer

D

Question 181 mark

Question

A high-power photomicrograph shows a cell in a stage of mitosis. The chromosomes are visible and lined up along the cell equator but there is no nuclear envelope. Which stage of mitosis is shown by the photomicrograph? A prophase B metaphase C anaphase D telophase

Answer

B

Question 191 mark

Question

Which statements about the cell cycle are correct? 1 The cell cycle includes interphase and mitosis. 2 DNA replication takes place in interphase. 3 A cell can remain in interphase for several months. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Answer

A

Question 201 mark

Question

A scientist stains the chromosomes of a plant cell with a fluorescent dye to observe the telomeres. This cell has 38 chromosomes. How many telomeres will the scientist observe in one of the nuclei during telophase of mitosis? A 38 B 76 C 114 D 152

Answer

B

Question 211 mark

Question

During the semi-conservative replication of DNA, the double helix is unwound by an enzyme. Which diagram shows how the strands are copied? A B 3′ 5′ 3′ 5′ 5′ 5′ DNA 3′ DNA 3′ polymerase polymerase lagging leading strand strand DNA DNA ligase 3′ ligase 3′ 5′ 3′ 5′ 5′ 3′ 5′ leading strand lagging strand C D 5′ 3′ 5′ 3′ 3′ 3′ DNA 5′ DNA 5′ polymerase polymerase lagging leading strand strand DNA DNA ligase 5′ ligase 5′ 3′ 5′ 3′ 3′ 5′ 3′ leading strand lagging strand

Answer

D

Question 221 mark

Question

A transcription error results in the deletion of one nucleotide from the middle of a primary transcript. mRNA forms from the primary transcript. Which statement describes one possible effect of this deletion on the protein translated from this mRNA? A The protein will be unchanged as the same amino acids can be coded by another codon formed by the deletion. B The tertiary structure of the protein is not affected as only one amino acid has been changed by the deletion. C Only one amino acid has been changed by the deletion but this changes the quaternary structure of the protein. D The sequence of amino acids in the protein will be different as all the codons from the deletion onwards are changed.

Answer

D

Question 231 mark

Question

Which statements correctly describe the process of translation? 1 The nucleotide sequence on an mRNA molecule is used to produce a specific amino acid chain. 2 A section of DNA is copied into an mRNA molecule by RNA polymerase. 3 A polypeptide is produced because anticodons on tRNA molecules attach to mRNA codons through peptide bonds. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

Answer

C

Question 241 mark

Question

A molecule of mRNA was used in translation. Part of its sequence is shown. GAU CUG UAA CGG There were no introns present in the section of DNA that was transcribed to make this mRNA. What is the sequence of the non-transcribed DNA strand for this section? A CTA GAC ATT GCC B CUA GAC AUU GCC C GAT CTG TAA CGG D GAU CUG UAA CGG

Answer

C

Question 251 mark

Question

Which properties of water are dependent on hydrogen bonding between water molecules? high latent heat solvent high specific cohesion of vaporisation action heat capacity A key B = dependent C = not dependent D

Answer

B

Question 261 mark

Question

Which substances in xylem tissue are impermeable to water and prevent the collapse of the vessels? impermeable to water prevent collapse A cellulose cellulose only B cellulose lignin only C lignin cellulose only D lignin cellulose and lignin

Answer

D

Question 271 mark

Question

The electron micrograph shows a longitudinal section through phloem tissue. Which student’s drawing of a sieve tube element is correctly drawn and labelled? A B mitochondrion cell wall sieve sieve plate plate C D cell cell wall wall cytoplasm cytoplasm sieve sieve plate plate mitochondrion

Answer

C

Question 281 mark

Question

Carrier proteins in the cell surface membranes of companion cells are involved in the transfer of assimilates to phloem sieve tubes. The diagram represents the use of two types of carrier protein in this process. key X X X X Y X X pump X Y companion X X cell cytoplasm cotransporter cell surface membrane What are the substances labelled X and Y? X Y A H+ ions sucrose B H+ ions glucose C sucrose H+ ions D glucose H+ ions

Answer

A

Question 291 mark

Question

The diagram shows pressure changes during two cardiac cycles. Which arrow indicates atrial systole? A 20 D pressure 10 / kPa B C 0 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 time / s

Answer

B

Question 301 mark

Question

An irregular heartbeat may be the result of ineffective electrical stimulation of the atria. Which area of the heart could be damaged, causing this irregular heartbeat? A atrioventricular node B septum C Purkyne tissue D sinoatrial node

Answer

D

Question 311 mark

Question

The diagram shows the effect of three different concentrations of carbon dioxide on the oxygen dissociation curve for human haemoglobin. 100 X X = partial pressure of Y carbon dioxide: 3.0 kPa percentage saturation of Z Y = partial pressure of haemoglobin carbon dioxide: 5.0 kPa with oxygen Z = partial pressure of carbon dioxide: 7.0 kPa 0 0 12 partial pressure of oxygen / kPa Which effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin? A It makes haemoglobin less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen. B It makes haemoglobin less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen. C It makes haemoglobin more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen. D It makes haemoglobin more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.

Answer

B

Question 321 mark

Question

Which reactions will be taking place in blood in a capillary that is next to an alveolus? 1 Hb + 4O2 → HbO8 key 2 H2O + CO2 → H2CO3 Hb = haemoglobin 3 H2CO3 → H+ + HCO3– A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

Answer

B

Question 331 mark

Question

Which structure of the gas exchange system always contains cartilage? A alveoli B bronchiole C capillary D bronchus

Answer

D

Question 341 mark

Question

Exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occurs between air in the alveoli and blood in the capillaries of the lung. Which partial pressures of the gases will allow gaseous exchange to occur? CO2 in O2 in CO2 in blood O2 in blood alveolar air alveolar air / kPa / kPa / kPa / kPa A 5.3 6.0 13.3 13.9 B 5.3 6.0 13.9 5.3 C 6.0 5.3 13.9 5.3 D 6.0 5.3 13.3 13.9

Answer

B

Question 351 mark

Question

The plan diagram shows a cross-section of a trachea. Which labelled tissue prevents the trachea from collapsing? B A C D

Answer

A

Question 361 mark

Question

Which layers of cells does an oxygen molecule diffuse through when moving from an alveolus into an alveolar capillary? alveolus alveolar capillary A squamous epithelium squamous epithelium B endothelium squamous epithelium C squamous epithelium endothelium D endothelium endothelium

Answer

C

Question 371 mark

Question

Bacteria may be classified according to differences in cell wall structure. The differences are shown by using the Gram stain. The diagram shows part of a Gram-positive bacterium and part of a Gram-negative bacterium, drawn to the same scale. external environment peptidoglycan layer Gram-positive bacterium periplasm (watery fluid containing proteins) cell surface membrane cytoplasm external environment outer membrane made of carbohydrate and lipid Gram-negative periplasm bacterium peptidoglycan layer periplasm cell surface membrane cytoplasm The antibiotic penicillin kills bacteria by inhibiting the synthesis of the cell walls during bacterial cell growth. Which type of bacteria will be killed by penicillin more easily and why? A Gram-positive bacteria because the peptidoglycan layer is exposed to penicillin directly B Gram-positive bacteria because it has a thinner layer surrounding the cell membrane overall C Gram-negative bacteria because the thin peptidoglycan layer can be broken down faster D Gram-negative bacteria because there is more periplasm available, which gives a weaker structure

Answer

A

Question 381 mark

Question

Which facts relate to the disease TB or its pathogen? 1 Viruses change their antigens to a limited extent. 2 TB is caused by only one species of pathogen. 3 HIV / AIDS makes the bacterial infection worse. 4 The pathogen may be transmitted by ingestion. 5 The pathogen may be transmitted from animals. 6 Multi-drug resistance occurs. A 1, 4, 5 and 6 B 1, 2 and 6 C 2, 3 and 5 D 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer

D

Question 391 mark

Question

The events listed occur during the primary immune response to a specific pathogen. 1 activation of B-lymphocyte to produce plasma cells and memory cells 2 phagocytosis of invading pathogens by macrophages 3 T-helper cell activation and production of T-killer cells 4 expression of antigens on phagocyte cell surface 5 production and release of antibodies Which row identifies a correct sequence of events? first last A 5 1 2 4 3 B 2 4 3 1 5 C 4 2 1 5 3 D 4 2 3 1 5

Answer

B

Question 401 mark

Question

Influenza is an infectious disease caused by a virus. It is possible to have influenza more than once. Which statements explain why it is possible to have influenza more than once? 1 The viral antigens change as a result of mutations. 2 The immune system may be weak and make few B-memory cells. 3 Untreated HIV infection has resulted in a low T-helper cell count. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Answer

A

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On this page, free: the mark scheme for AS & A Level Biology 9700/13, May/June 2024 (9700_s24_ms_13), and the question paper (9700_s24_qp_13), to read or download, with each question's marking points written out underneath.

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Biology 9700/13 for May/June 2024 is out of 40 marks, with 1 hour 15 minutes to answer it.

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